Med Surg Nursing Certification certification, exam prep, classes and practice test 2023
August 14, 2022Early Childhood Mtel certification, exam prep, classes and practice test 2023
August 14, 2022Med Surg Hesi certification, exam prep, classes and practice test 2023
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate? A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion. B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline. C) Increase the vasopressin infusion.
One of the most useful resource available is 24/7 access to study guides and notes. It helped me a lot to clear my final semester exams. They work closely with nursing educators and professionals to ensure that the exam content is relevant, up-to-date, and aligned with current nursing practice standards. • Physical assessment should concentrate on ____, especially in clients with injury at C-3 to C-5, because the cervical plexus innervates the diaphragm. Differentiate between the symptoms of left-sided cardiac failure and right-sided cardiac failure.
If an embolus is suspected, notify physician stat, draw blood gases, administer O2, and assist with endotracheal intubation. Lupus erythematosus; this is what differentiates it from other connective-tissue diseases. Identify the prescribed dose and type of insulin per physician order; store unopened insulin in refrigerator. Opened insulin vials may be kept at room temperature for up to 28 days. Draw up regular insulin first; rotate injection sites; may reuse syringe by recapping and storing in refrigerator.
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client’s
Is the Med-surg exam hard?
These include subjects like assessment and diagnosis, the evaluation of planning/implementation/outcomes, and the professional role of the Med-Surg nurse. With a maximum score of 500 possible, you must get at least a 350 to pass the exam. The test is rigorous and takes up to three and a half hours to complete.
A) pulse rate, both apically and radially. B) blood pressure, both standing and sitting. Total lung capacity is increased in emphysema since these clients have hyperinflated lungs (A).
(A) will be almost impossible to see at night because the shadows of the steps will be too difficult to determine, and would pose a safety hazard. (B) is very hard to see with a glare from the sun and it could hurt the eyes in the daytime to look at them. (C) is a pastel color and is difficult for elderly clients to see. Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to prevent deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears. The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs, the client should notify the healthcare provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the integrity of the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and is not indicated because conception does not occur during this time. C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
How to Prepare for HESI Exams
Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect this client to exhibit? A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns.
Physical examination of a comatose client reveals decorticate posturing. Which statement is accurate regarding this client’s status based upon this finding? A) A cerebral infectious process is causing the posturing.
When teaching diaphragmatic breathing to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which information should the nurse provide? A) Place a small book or magazine on the abdomen and make it rise while inhaling deeply. B) Purse the lips while inhaling as deeply as possible and then exhale through the nose. C) Wrap a towel around the abdomen and push against the towel while forcefully exhaling.
With question formats and exam blueprints that mirror actual credentialing exams, our exit exams measure your readiness for board exams and can reliably assess your chances of passing. Plus, the results of exit exams allow you to identify and address areas of weakness before exam day. Accompanying questions challenge you to use your clinical judgment skills to make sound patient care decisions. This test (whispered pectoriloquy) demonstrates hyperresonance and helps determine the clarity with which spoken words are heard upon auscultation. Normally, the spoken word is not well transmitted through lung tissue, and is heard as a muffled or unclear transmission of the spoken word.
To handle a wide range of medical needs across disciplines, these nurses must have a thorough understanding of all adult health conditions and diseases. They are leaders in the coordination of care among the interprofessional healthcare team and possess advanced organizational, prioritization, assessment, and communication skills. The HESI A2 is an entrance exam required by many nursing schools for admission.
To determine learning needs, the nurse should assess (A), but this is not the most important factor for the nurse to assess. (B and D) are factors to consider, but not as vital as (C). Full-thickness burns destroy the entire dermal layer. Included in this destruction is the regenerative tissue. For this reason, tissue regeneration does not occur, and skin grafting is necessary (A). Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?
C) Pad all bony prominences on the affected leg. The perimenopausal period begins about 10 years before menopause with the cessation of menstruation at the average ages of 52 to 54. In-depth pathophysiology of the symptoms (A) may only confuse the client.
(D) is a sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client’s medication record.
(A, B, and D) are not as good a time to draw the trough as (C). (B and D) are not the best times to draw the peak of an aminoglycoside that has been administered IV. A) He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot. The loss of a limb by a family member (A) will be the strongest event or “cue to action” and is most likely to increase the perceived seriousness of the disease. (B, C, and D) may influence his behavior but do not have the personal impact of (A).
Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client? A) Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles. B) High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure. C) Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion.
Since the defibrillator is not functioning, (C) is not warranted. The client should be treated immediately to restore cardiac output (D). The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is manifested by which symptoms? A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client? D) Raising the head of the bed on blocks.
A) K. Clients should be monitored for an increased prothrombin time and prolonged bleeding times which would alert the nurse to a vitamin K deficiency (A). These drugs reduce absorption of the fat soluble (lipid) vitamins A, D, E, and K. (B, C, and D) are not fat soluble vitamins. Exacerbations of the symptoms of MS occur most commonly as the result of fatigue and stress. Extra rest periods should be scheduled (C) to reduce the symptoms. (A, B, and C) relate to subsequent osmolar fluid shifts related to glucosuria, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Although smoking (D) increases the risk of atherosclerotic vascular disease which is common in clients with an organ transplant, (C) remains the priority. Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding (C) may be an indication of endometrial cancer, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Compared to a new-onset of a single lump, breasts that feel lumpy (A) overall may be a normal variant or a finding consistent with nonmalignant fibrocystic disease.
B) Increased serum bilirubin, slightly increased liver enzymes. C) Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. D) Decreased serum sodium, an increased urine specific gravity. A client taking a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum potassium level of 3. The nurse anticipates which change in prescription for the client?
SCDs are used to prevent thrombophlebitis, not for treatment, when a clot might be dislodged (A). Once a client has thrombophlebitis, (B) is contraindicated because of the possibility of dislodging a clot. (C) is indicated to prevent pressure ulcers, but is not a therapeutic action for thrombophlebitis.